Phenom 300 manual
Posted: Fri Mar 16, 2018 5:57 pm
Looking for a phenom 300 manual as well.
Re: Phenom 300 manual
Posted: Fri Mar 16, 2018 6:01 pm
PHENOM 300 QUESTIONS
Fire and Oxygen
1. What happens when you push a fire shut off button?
It closes the respective side fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves, the bleed valves, and enables the fire extinguisher discharging bottle.
2. How many fire extinguishing bottles are on the airplane? One
3. How do you know if the fire detection system is working properly?
When you hear these during the fire detection test: "FIRE", CAS Message "ENG 1/2 FIRE" or FIRE message in the ITT field and red light in the shutoff push button.
4. What does continued illumination of the engine shutoff push button indicate after completing the engine fire procedure and extinguishing the fire bottle?
The overheat/fire on that engine still exists.
5. What are 3 positions of the oxygen supply control knob and their functions? CREW ONLY, PAX AUTO & PAX OVRD
6. What is the purpose of the Auto Dilution Valve? When it is pulled, the flight crew will breathe cabin air.
7. When will the Auto Dilution Valve automatically close?
In the event of cabin decompression. Also at altitudes from 8,300 to 10,000 feet the valve will close.
8. When do the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy? 14,700 ft (+/- 300 feet)
9. What does a "CAB ALTITUDE HI" CAS message indicate? Cabin Altitude is 10,000 feet or higher.
1. How many ADS systems are available? 3. ADS 1, ADS 2 & STBY
2. What does the green circle on the airspeed indicator indicate? 1.3 Vs
3. What happens to the PFD2 and the MFD in the event the left side PFD fails? The MFD enters revisionary mode and PFD 2 remains normal
4. What is the primary source of navigation in the Phenom 300? GPS
5. How many GPS receivers does the Phenom 300 have? 2. One in each GIA
6. What is the function of the CPL pushbutton? Swaps autopilot between the PF and PM
7. What are the primary flight controls? Ailerons, Elevator & Rudder
8. What are the secondary flight controls?
Flaps, Spoilers, Horizontal Stabilizer & Gust Lock
9. What do each of the Flight Control Electrical (FCE) systems control?
FCE1 controls Pitch Trim Backup and Flaps. FCE2 controls Normal Pitch Trim and Spoilers.
10. What conditions must be met for the ground spoilers to deploy? Aircraft on the ground, Thrust Levers Idle and Ground Spoilers Armed
11. If extended, what airspeed will the speed brakes retract? 110 kts
12. What kind of flaps are installed on the Phenom 300? 4 Panel Trailing Edge Fowler Flaps
13. Which trims are commanded by the Trim Actuator System (TAS) thorugh the trim panel? Aileron & Rudder
14. Where is the roll trim actuator installed? On the Left Wing Tip
15. How would roll or rudder trim failure be detected? Switch activation will not move the trim tab
1. Where is the fuel stored? 2 integral wing tanks
2. How many fuel pumps are found in each tank?
3. One ejector pump; One scavenge pump and One electric fuel boost pump
3. How is the primary ejector pump powered? Motive flow from the respective engine
4. When is the electric fuel pump activated if in the auto position? Engine Start, Crossfeed Operation & If the primary ejector pump fails
5. How is fuel crossfeeding performed?
Select the XFEED switch to the wing tank. This opens the XFEED valve and turns on the electric DC pump in the wing tank with the highest level of fuel
6. What is the restriction on crossfeed operation? Do NOT crossfeed during takeoff and landing
7. When fuel becomes balanced and the crossfeed valve is open, what CAS message will be annunciated?
8. Will the total tank quantity indication be lost if only one wing tank quantity indicator fails? Yes
9. What would cause a "FUEL LO LEVEL" CAS message? 310 lbs of fuel remaining in the respective tank
10. What would cause a "FUEL IMBALANCE" CAS message? 220 lbs imbalance
11. Is de-fueling possible?
YES, with the dump valve located under the wing
12. What are the 2 tests that should be accomplished on the control panel before refueling? Lamp Test & Shut-OFF Test
13. What needs to be accomplished on the refueling panel if external power is not being utilized? The POWER SWITCH must be selected to BATT
1. What systems require hydraulic pressure?
Landing Gear, Wheel Brakes, Pusher, Rudder Boost, Spoiler, Speed Brakes
2. What is the function of the priority valve?
It provides hydraulic power to the spoilers, stick pusher, rudder spring actuator, or brakes by restricting the flow to the landing gear, if being used simultaneously
3. How much fluid can the hydraulic reservoir hold? 1.3 gallons maximum
4. What does the bypass valve do?
If the filter becomes clogged, the bypass valve will open to allow continued flow through the hydraulic system
5. How do you know if the filters need to be replaced?
They have a red pop up differential pressure indicator to provide a visual indication when it is time to replace the filters
6. How do you close the Fire Shutoff Valve?
Manually by the engine fire extinguisher shutoff buttons, automatically in case of hydraulic system high temperature, or through the shutoff switches on the hydraulic panel
7. What does a "HYD HI TEMP" CAS message indicate?
The hydraulic fluid temperature has risen above 235+/-7 F and both FSOV's automatically close
8. What does a "HYD LO PRES" CAS message indicate? The system is not capable of providing flow at rated pressure
9. What does a "HYD SOV 1/2 FAIL" CAS message indicate?
A Fire Shutoff Valve, (FSOV), was commanded to close and did not
10. What provides contamination protection? 2 disposable filters
Ice and Rain Protection
1. What systems are protected against ice and rain?
Horizontal Stab, Wings, Engine Air Intakes, Pitot/Static System, Windshield
2. With a loss of electrical power, which position do the anti-ice valves default to? OPEN
3. What heats the engine nacelle intake? Engine Bleed Air
4. What does "A-I E 1/2 FAIL" mean?
Loss of Anti-Ice protection to associated engine
5. What does "A-I WINGSTB INHB" CAS message mean?
WHSAIS switched ON outside the icing envelope or the aircraft is in a single bleed configuration and above 15,000 ft icing envelope with the WHSAIS switched ON
6. At what altitude is the WHSAIS operation limited if you have a single bleed source? 15,000 Feet
Landing Gear and Brakes
1. How does the landing gear operate? Electrically actuated and hydraulically operated
2. Where is the emergency gear extension handle located? Between the pilot seats under the cockpit floor
3. What holds the gear in the up position? An uplock box on each gear
4. If flaps failed, when would the landing gear warning horn sound?
The landing gear horn will sound when the difference between pressure and altitude and LFE is less than 700' while descending
5. What is the primary input for the Air/Ground system? Weight on Wheels (WOW)
6. What are the aircraft systems that utilize the Weight on Wheels (WOW)?
Avionics Data Concentrator Unit, Flight Controls for Flaps & Spoilers, Fuel System Fuel Indication, Air Cond. & Pressurization, Baggage Compartment Lights, Electrical System, FADEC, Landing Gear Control Lever, Brake Control System
7. What is the maximum turning radius?
The rudder pedals have 20 degrees of steering with 23 degrees for differential braking and thrust
8. What would a "LG WOW SYS FAIL" CAS message indicate?
A disagreement from the signals from right and left WOW sensors for more than 3 seconds
9. What type of brake system is installed on the Phenom 300? Carbon Brakes and Brake by Wire
10. What happens if the wheel speed input fails? Anti-Skid will not be available
11. What would a "BRK FAIL" CAS message indicate?
Only the emergency/parking brake will be available for stopping
12. Is anti-skid available for the emergency brake? No
13. How many applications are provided with the emergency braking system? 6
1. What is VLO? 250 KIAS
2. What is VLE? 250 KIAS
3. What is VMC for Takeoff? 97 KIAS
4. What is VMC for Landing with NO ice? 91 KIAS
5. What is VMC for Landing in icing conditions? 95 KIAS
6. VFE for flaps 1? 180 KIAS
7. VFE for flaps 2? 170 KIAS
8. VFE for flaps 3? 170 KIAS
9. What is the maximum altitude for flap extension? 18,000 ft
10. What is the maximum tire groundspeed? 182 knots
11. What is the load factor for flaps 0? 3.0 g
12. What is the load factor for flaps down 1, 2 & 3? 2.0 g
13. What is the runway slope limitation? +2% to -2%
14. What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind? 10 knots
15. What is the maximum loading for the lavatory cabinet? 33 lbs
Limitations Part One
16. What is the maximum loading for the aft baggage compartment? 463 lbs
17. What is the maximum loading for the forward baggage compartment? 110 lbs
18. What is the maximum loading for the refreshment center? 71 lbs
19. The hydraulic system accumulator precharge must be checked each _______ consec. days or before the next flight.
20. What is the minimum voltage for engine start? 24v
21. What is the minimum GPU voltage for battery charging? 27V
22. What is the maximum Generator loading on the ground for each generator? 330 amperes
23. What is the maximum Generator loading in flight for each generator? 390 amperes
24. What is the maximum usable fuel quantity per tank? 399.4 US Gallons
25. What is the unusable fuel quantity per tank? 3.70 US Gallons
Limitations Part Two
1. What are the approved fuels? QAV - 1, Jet A, Jet A-1, JP-8
2. What is the maximum recommended turbulent air penetration speed above 32,000 feet? 232 KIAS / 0.65 M, whichever is lower
3. What is the minimum fuel tank temperature? -37° C
4. What is the maximum fuel tank temperature on the ground? 52° C
5. Fuel tank temperature may be exceeded in flight, limited to _____. 80° C
6. Maximum fuel capacity is _______ gallons 806.20 gallons
7. What is the maximum permitted imbalance between tanks? 33 US gallons
8. What kind of engines are installed on the Phenom 300? Two Pratt & Whitney Canada PW535E
9. What is the maximum time limit for thrust setting at MAX? 5 MIN
10. What is the maximum time limit for thrust setting at TAKEOFF? 5 MIN
11. Fuel crossfeed must be set to ______ for takeoff and landing. OFF
12. The static Takeoff power application on the ground is limited to crosswind components up to ______ knots.
13. What is the maximum differential pressure? 9.4 psi
14. What is the maximum differential overpressure? 9.6 psi
15. What is the maximum differential negative pressure? -0.3 psi
16. What is the maximum differential pressure for takeoff and landing? 0.2 psi
17. What is the minimum temperature for landing in icing conditions? -33° C
18. What is the minimum temperature for wing stabilizer anti-ice system operation? -40° C
19. What is the minimum airspeed for flaps and gear up? 150 KIAS
20. Flight in freezing drizzle is _______. Prohibited
21. What is the minimum engagement height for the autopilot with two engines running? 600 ft AGL
22. What is the minimum engagement height for the autopilot engaged single engine? 1,000 ft AGL
23. What is the maximum differential pressure? 9.4 psi
24. What is the minimum use height for the autopilot with two engines running? 195 ft AGL
25. What is the minimum use height for the autopilot on a single engine? 160 ft AGL
26. The yaw damper OFF airspeed is limited to ______ KIAS if in icing conditions. 180
27. What is the maximum recommended turbulent air penetration speed at or below 32,000 feet? 232 KIAS
1. What is the function of the Air Management System Controller, (the dual- channel, software based, electronic digital controller)?
It continuously monitors the performance of the pneumatic system components, the WHSAIS as well as the airflow schedule of the ACS and maintains system functionality through system logic.
2. What sub-systems are considered pneumatic?
Air conditioning, cabin pressurization, wing and horizontal stab anti-ice system
3. How is the bleed system controlled?
By two bleed Pressure Regulating Shutoff Valves (PRSOV) located in each pylon.
4. What are the functions of the two Pressure Regulating Shutoff Valves (PRSOVs)?
They regulate the hot bleed air released to the ECS and AIVs and provide a firewall shutoff capability for the bleed air lines.
5. What would you expect regarding the AMS if the temperature were above 30 C?
A white crew awareness CAS message stating that one or both bleed valves has closed, which can be verified on the ECS schematic page.
6. Does a PRSOV automatically close in case of a single engine takeoff condition? Yes
7. Can the remaining bleed air then supply all of the bleed air required by the system? Yes, via the Cross Bleed Valve, (XBV).
8. How can the pilot override the RH PRSOV to the closed position? By placing the pneumatic Bleed 2 toggle switch to the OFF position.
9. What two modes control cockpit and cabin temperature? Auto and manual mode.
10. How does the crew transfer cabin temp control to the passengers? By dialing the Cabin Temp Knob full counter-clockwise into the detent.
11. How is temperature of the air to the cabin controlled?
Temperature Modulating Valves (TMVs) mix cooled air from the heat exchangers with hot bleed air based on temperature selection on the cockpit control panel.
12. What is the function of the Vapor Cycle System, (VCS)?
Provides cooling air for the cabin and cockpit and is operated automatically by the ECS controller. (The VCS uses a refrigerant, evaporators, condenser and a fan to produce the cold air).
13. When can the VCS be operated on the ground? With GPU power, or one engine operating.
14. What is used to cool the heat exchanger?
Ground cooling fan on the ground or ram air in flight.
15. For the pressurization system to operate automatically, what input is required by the flight crew prior to departure?
LFE must be set.
16. What is the purpose of the Dump Button?
Provides cabin depressurization by opening the outflow valve. If pressed a second time, the system returns to normal. It also turns off the recirculation fans.
17. Where is the Outflow Valve located? It is mounted on the aft pressure bulkhead.
18. What is the purpose of the negative and positive relief valves?
They are designed to prevent over or under pressurization of the fuselage; they are not actuated during normal operation.
1. What is the engine type of the Phenom 300? Pratt & Whitney PW535E
2. What is FADEC and how does it control the engine?
Full Authority Digital Electronic Control, (FADEC). Each engine is controlled and monitored by 2 FADEC channels. When one channel is in control, the other is in standby mode.
3. Does the FADEC assist in in-flight start?
Yes, the FADEC automatically actuates both igniters during starting and disables the abort starting logic. In this case, the decision on whether to abort an unsuccessful start is pilots discretion.
4. What is the PMA?
Permanent Magnet Alternator is the primary source of AC power to both channels of the FADEC when the engine is running above idle.
5. What is the ATR?
The ATR automatically provides maximum engine thrust (TO RSV or GA RSV) whenever it is armed.
6. What will happen if the START/STOP knob is moved to stop and the TLA is not at IDLE? The FADEC will disregard the STOP selection and not shut down the engine.
7. What does an "E 1/2 OIL IMP BYP" CAS message mean? There is an impending blockage of the oil filter.
8. What is an "Auto Relight?"
FADEC continuously monitors the engine parameters & automatically turns on both igniters & schedules the relight fuel flow in case an engine flameout is detected, assuming the ENG START/STOP knob is out of the STOP position
9. In an electrical emergency condition, what does the power to supply the channel B ignition exciters do?
Automatically switches from the DC busses to the emergency bus.
10. What is the maximum oil consumption limit? 0.09 kgh (0.02 lb/h) measured over a 10 hour period.
11. The FADEC provides 3 types start protection. What are they? Hot Start, Hung Start and No Light-Off
12. In case of any unrecoverable engine surge lasting more than ___ seconds, a boroscope inspection must be performed.
1. What is the maximum takeoff weight?
17,968 lbs Pre-Mod or 18,387 lbs Post-Mod (REFER TO OPERATING WEIGHTS)
2. What is the maximum operating speed up to 25,000 ft? 320 KIAS
3. What is the maximum flaps extended speed for flaps 1? 180 KIAS
4. The max differential pressure is: 8.5 + 0.1
5. What is the maximum tire groundspeed? 182 knots
6. What is the runway slope limitation? -2 to +2%
7. What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind limitation? 10 knots
8. If total DC power is lost, automatic pressurization without pilot input is controlled by: Maximum delta-P and maximum cabin altitude limit valves
9. If both generators fail and the BATT switch is placed in the EMER position, the pilot control of the pressurization system is with the use of the:
CABIN DUMP switch
10. The pressurization system operates in high altitude mode if:
There is a destination field above 10,000 feet set and the aircraft has descended below 24,500 feet